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« Should Cheerleading Be Banned in Cricket? | Main | Collected Advice for Economists, Young and Not-so-Young »

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KipEsquire

I'm not sure this reasoning is very robust.

If one assumes that a corporate sponsor of the Olympics have a constant expenditure function for advertising (hardly an outlandish assumption), then the only opportunity cost from sponsoring the Olympics is the next best alternative advertising, not the next best alternative use imaginable. There is no basis to assume that the money would, almost by definition, be returned to shareholders, invested in capital projects, deployed to research & development, etc., "but for" the Olympics.

My employer matches charitable donations by employees (up to a certain limit). My employer also makes (anti-Friedman?) direct donations to charity. I have no doubt whatsoever that the budgetary flowchart is that the firm allocates a certain amount to charitable donations ex ante, then reduces that amount to reflect employee matching (i.e., the total outlay is constant regardless of how much or how little employees apply for matching grants). But that is simply not the same as saying that, by matching employee donations, the firm is reducing capital expenditures, R&D or returns to shareholders

Eric Parsons

Granted, there is an opportunity cost for every decision. However, doesn't the fact that they are choosing to support the Olympic bid suggest that this decision provides them with the highest utility. Honestly, I fail to see the problem here.

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